This free Part 107 practice test contains 50 questions drawn from all major FAA Remote Pilot Certificate exam topics. Use it to identify weak areas before your actual knowledge test. All questions include answers at the bottom — take notes on misses for targeted study. The actual Part 107 exam has 60 questions with a 2-hour time limit and 70% passing score.
Test your knowledge with these 50 practice questions covering all major Part 107 exam topics. Answers are provided at the bottom.
Instructions
- 50 questions total
- No time limit for practice
- Actual exam: 60 questions in 2 hours
- Passing score: 70% (35/50 on this practice test)
- Take notes on questions you miss for focused study
Regulations (Questions 1-5)
1. According to 14 CFR Part 107, the maximum groundspeed for a small unmanned aircraft is:
- A) 87 knots
- B) 100 knots
- C) 100 mph
- D) No limit specified
2. To act as a remote pilot in command under Part 107, you must be at least:
- A) 18 years old
- B) 16 years old
- C) 21 years old
- D) Age is not specified
3. Part 107 night operations are allowed if:
- A) You have a waiver
- B) Your sUAS has anti-collision lighting visible for 3 SM
- C) You completed recurrent training on night operations
- D) Both B and C
4. The remote PIC may operate an sUAS from a moving vehicle when:
- A) Operating over a sparsely populated area
- B) Operating over water
- C) Operating below 200 feet AGL
- D) This is never allowed
5. The minimum visibility required for Part 107 operations is:
- A) 1 statute mile
- B) 3 statute miles
- C) 5 statute miles
- D) No minimum specified
Airspace (Questions 6-10)
6. Class B airspace typically surrounds:
- A) Small airports
- B) The busiest airports
- C) Military bases
- D) Sparsely populated areas
7. The basic shape of Class B airspace resembles:
- A) A cylinder
- B) An upside-down wedding cake
- C) A cone
- D) A rectangle
8. To operate in Class D airspace, you must:
- A) File a flight plan
- B) Obtain ATC authorization
- C) Only operate during tower hours
- D) Have a visual observer
9. Class E airspace typically starts at:
- A) The surface
- B) 700 feet AGL
- C) 1,200 feet AGL
- D) Either A, B, or C depending on location
10. Which airspace requires no authorization for Part 107 operations?
- A) Class B
- B) Class C
- C) Class D
- D) Class G
Weather (Questions 11-15)
11. A METAR provides:
- A) Current weather conditions
- B) Weather forecast
- C) Pilot reports
- D) Radar summary
12. A TAF is:
- A) A terminal aerodrome forecast
- B) Current weather observations
- C) A pilot weather report
- D) A radar summary
13. The visibility symbol “10SM” in a METAR means:
- A) 10 nautical miles
- B) 10 statute miles
- C) 10 kilometers
- D) Visibility unlimited
14. The weather code “BKN030” indicates:
- A) Broken clouds at 3,000 feet AGL
- B) Broken clouds at 30,000 feet MSL
- C) Broken clouds at 300 feet AGL
- D) Breaking clouds at 3,000 feet MSL
15. Wind direction in a METAR is given in relation to:
- A) True north
- B) Magnetic north
- C) Either, depending on location
- D) Runway heading
Performance & Loading (Questions 16-20)
16. High density altitude has what effect on aircraft performance?
- A) Increased performance
- B) Decreased performance
- C) No effect
- D) Only affects manned aircraft
17. Density altitude increases with:
- A) High temperature, high humidity, high pressure altitude
- B) Low temperature, low humidity, low pressure altitude
- C) High temperature, low humidity, high pressure altitude
- D) High temperature, high humidity, low pressure altitude
18. The most critical performance factor for sUAS operations is:
- A) Airspeed
- B) Battery capacity
- C) Weight
- D) Temperature
19. When density altitude increases, required takeoff distance:
- A) Increases
- B) Decreases
- C) No change
- D) Depends on aircraft type
20. Propeller efficiency is reduced when operating in:
- A) Cold air
- B) Hot, humid air
- C) Dry air
- D) Low altitude
Operations (Questions 21-25)
21. Visual line of sight (VLOS) means:
- A) You can see the aircraft with corrected vision
- B) The aircraft is visible to the naked eye
- C) Both A and B
- D) You can see it on the controller screen
22. When must a remote PIC inspect the sUAS?
- A) Before each flight
- B) Weekly
- C) Monthly
- D) As needed
23. Who is responsible for determining if an sUAS is safe for flight?
- A) The manufacturer
- B) The visual observer
- C) The remote PIC
- D) The FAA
24. An sUAS must be operated within what distance of the remote PIC?
- A) 3 miles
- B) 5 miles
- C) Visual line of sight
- D) Radio range
25. Can one remote PIC operate multiple sUAS simultaneously?
- A) Yes, if within VLOS
- B) Yes, if under 55 lbs combined
- C) Only with a waiver
- D) No, not allowed
Safety (Questions 26-30)
26. If your sUAS experiences a flyaway, you must report it to the FAA:
- A) Immediately
- B) Within 10 days
- C) Within 30 days
- D) Only if there’s damage
27. A “flyaway” occurs when:
- A) The aircraft loses GPS signal
- B) The aircraft is unresponsive to commands
- C) The battery dies mid-flight
- D) The pilot loses visual contact
28. Lithium polymer batteries should be stored at:
- A) Full charge
- B) Empty
- C) 40-60% charge
- D) Any charge level
29. If your sUAS collides with another aircraft, you must report it:
- A) Immediately
- B) Within 10 days
- C) Within 30 days
- D) Only if there’s an injury
30. Emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) on sUAS are:
- A) Required on all sUAS
- B) Required on sUAS over 10 pounds
- C) Not applicable to sUAS
- D) Recommended for all operations
Aviation Knowledge (Questions 31-35)
31. The most frequent type of ground-based temperature inversion is:
- A) Advection inversion
- B) Radiation inversion
- C) Frontal inversion
- D) Subsidence inversion
32. Turbulence caused by wind flowing over obstacles is called:
- A) Mechanical turbulence
- B) Thermal turbulence
- C) Frontal turbulence
- D) Mountain wave turbulence
33. A stable air mass is characterized by:
- A) Good visibility, steady precipitation
- B) Poor visibility, steady precipitation
- C) Good visibility, showery precipitation
- D) Poor visibility, showery precipitation
34. Dewpoint is:
- A) The temperature at which water freezes
- B) The temperature at which moisture condenses
- C) Always lower than temperature
- D) Measured in feet
35. A SIGMET is issued for weather that is:
- A) Routine
- B) Potentially hazardous to all aircraft
- C) Only affects large aircraft
- D) Below 10,000 feet
Charts & Airspace (Questions 36-40)
36. On a sectional chart, Class D airspace is depicted with:
- A) Solid blue lines
- B) Dashed blue lines
- C) Solid magenta lines
- D) Dashed magenta lines
37. The maximum elevation figure (MEF) on a sectional chart represents:
- A) The highest terrain in that quadrant
- B) The highest obstacle in that quadrant
- C) The highest terrain or obstacle, rounded up
- D) The minimum safe altitude
38. A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart indicates:
- A) Class D airspace
- B) Class E airspace
- C) Airport with control tower
- D) Restricted area
39. Where are Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) published?
- A) Sectional charts
- B) NOTAMs
- C) METARs
- D) TAFs
40. The symbol “R” on a chart indicates:
- A) Radar required
- B) Restricted area
- C) Radio communication required
- D) Runway
Physiological Factors (Questions 41-45)
41. What is most likely to cause spatial disorientation?
- A) Flying in VMC
- B) Using FPV without a visual observer
- C) Flying in daylight
- D) Flying at low altitude
42. Alcohol can affect a pilot for:
- A) 8 hours
- B) 24 hours or more
- C) 4 hours
- D) Until you feel sober
43. Fatigue can be recognized by:
- A) Increased errors
- B) Slower reactions
- C) Poor decision making
- D) All of the above
44. The “I’M SAFE” checklist stands for:
- A) Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion
- B) Inspection, Maintenance, Safety, Analysis, Flight, Evaluation
- C) Illness, Maintenance, Safety, Alcohol, Fuel, Equipment
- D) Inspection, Medication, Stress, Analysis, Fatigue, Emotion
45. Dehydration effects can be reduced by:
- A) Drinking water before feeling thirsty
- B) Drinking coffee
- C) Drinking energy drinks
- D) Limiting physical activity
Emergency Procedures (Questions 46-50)
46. If you lose GPS signal during flight, you should:
- A) Immediately land
- B) Switch to ATTI mode if available and maintain VLOS
- C) Return home immediately
- D) Contact ATC
47. If your aircraft drifts during hover, the most likely cause is:
- A) Low battery
- B) Wind
- C) GPS error
- D) Any of the above
48. Priority during an emergency is:
- A) Protecting the aircraft
- B) Protecting people and property
- C) Notifying authorities
- D) Recovering the aircraft
49. If you inadvertently enter IMC, you should:
- A) Continue on course
- B) Immediately descend/turn to exit IMC
- C) Climb above clouds
- D) Activate return-to-home
50. The first action after any incident is:
- A) Document everything
- B) Report to the FAA
- C) Ensure safety of people in the area
- D) Secure the aircraft
Answer Key
-
C - 100 mph
-
B - 16 years old
-
D - Both B and C (lighting + recurrent training)
-
A - Over sparsely populated area
-
B - 3 statute miles
-
B - The busiest airports
-
B - Upside-down wedding cake
-
B - Obtain ATC authorization
-
D - Either A, B, or C (varies by location)
-
D - Class G
-
A - Current weather conditions
-
A - Terminal aerodrome forecast
-
B - 10 statute miles
-
A - Broken clouds at 3,000 feet AGL
-
A - True north
-
B - Decreased performance
-
A - High temp, high humidity, high pressure altitude
-
B - Battery capacity
-
A - Increases
-
B - Hot, humid air
-
C - Both A and B
-
A - Before each flight
-
C - The remote PIC
-
C - Visual line of sight
-
D - No, not allowed
-
B - Within 10 days
-
B - Aircraft unresponsive to commands
-
C - 40-60% charge
-
B - Within 10 days
-
C - Not applicable to sUAS
-
B - Radiation inversion
-
A - Mechanical turbulence
-
B - Poor visibility, steady precipitation
-
B - Temperature at which moisture condenses
-
B - Potentially hazardous to all aircraft
-
B - Dashed blue lines
-
C - Highest terrain/obstacle, rounded up
-
A - Class D airspace (when around airport)
-
B - NOTAMs
-
B - Restricted area
-
B - Using FPV without visual observer
-
B - 24 hours or more
-
D - All of the above
-
A - Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion
-
A - Drinking water before feeling thirsty
-
B - Switch to ATTI mode, maintain VLOS
-
D - Any of the above
-
B - Protecting people and property
-
B - Immediately descend/turn to exit IMC
-
C - Ensure safety of people
Your Score
Count your correct answers:
- 45-50 correct (90-100%): Excellent! You’re ready for the exam.
- 40-44 correct (80-88%): Good work! Review the topics you missed.
- 35-39 correct (70-78%): Passing range. Focus on weak areas.
- Below 35 (under 70%): More study needed. Review materials thoroughly.
Next Steps
Need More Practice?
- Review questions you missed
- Study corresponding topics in the Part 107 Study Guide
- Take this test again in a few days
Ready to Train? While passing the test gets you certified, real proficiency requires hands-on training.
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Practice test based on current Part 107 regulations | Updated February 2025